Time Limit: 1000MS | Memory Limit: 65536K | |
Total Submissions: 11367 | Accepted: 3962 |
Description
In a certain course, you take n tests. If you get ai out of bi questions correct on test i, your cumulative average is defined to be
.
Given your test scores and a positive integer k, determine how high you can make your cumulative average if you are allowed to drop any k of your test scores.
Suppose you take 3 tests with scores of 5/5, 0/1, and 2/6. Without dropping any tests, your cumulative average is . However, if you drop the third test, your cumulative average becomes
.
Input
The input test file will contain multiple test cases, each containing exactly three lines. The first line contains two integers, 1 ≤ n ≤ 1000 and 0 ≤ k < n. The second line contains n integers indicating ai for all i. The third line contains n positive integers indicating bi for all i. It is guaranteed that 0 ≤ ai ≤ bi ≤ 1, 000, 000, 000. The end-of-file is marked by a test case with n = k = 0 and should not be processed.
Output
For each test case, write a single line with the highest cumulative average possible after dropping k of the given test scores. The average should be rounded to the nearest integer.
Sample Input
3 1 5 0 2 5 1 6 4 2 1 2 7 9 5 6 7 9 0 0
Sample Output
83 100
Hint
To avoid ambiguities due to rounding errors, the judge tests have been constructed so that all answers are at least 0.001 away from a decision boundary (i.e., you can assume that the average is never 83.4997).
Source
题目链接:POJ 2976
题意:给你N个物品,每一个物品有它的属性ai与bi,求丢掉K个物品后使留下来的N-K个物品的${Sigma a_i} over {Sigma b_i}$最大化。
如果没听过01分数规划可以先看这篇文章:传送门1,传送门2,然后我想说的是其中对$r={{Sigma a_i*x_i} over {Sigma b_i*x_i}}$的移项变形可以得到:$0={Sigma a_i*x_i}-r*{Sigma b_i*x_i}$
然后就是这里搞了一会儿才弄明白(数学渣没办法),想一想是不是很想熟悉的二次函数$y=ax^2+bx+c$的形式,有时候我们也利用$0=ax^2+bx+c$来推导二次函数,可以发现后者是前者的特殊情况,当y=0时前者便成了后者,或者说后者求出来的解是在自变量轴上的交点。那么上面那个函数同理,若把0改成F(r),则可以发现这是一个图像,由于bixi大于等于0,因此至少是关于r递减,又由于这个变量又受x_i集合的取值影响,这个图像实际上就像我们要使得$0={Sigma a_i*x_i}-r*{Sigma b_i*x_i}$成立,显然需要当$r=r_i$的时候$F(r)=0$,但是这样的取值$r_i$可以有很多个,那么我们要找到最靠右的那个点作为答案即可。当然这题还用到了贪心的思想,因为取哪个是随意的,当然取每一次取最优的
代码:
#include <stdio.h> #include <iostream> #include <algorithm> #include <cstdlib> #include <sstream> #include <numeric> #include <cstring> #include <bitset> #include <string> #include <deque> #include <stack> #include <cmath> #include <queue> #include <set> #include <map> using namespace std; #define INF 0x3f3f3f3f #define LC(x) (x<<1) #define RC(x) ((x<<1)+1) #define MID(x,y) ((x+y)>>1) #define CLR(arr,val) memset(arr,val,sizeof(arr)) #define FAST_IO ios::sync_with_stdio(false);cin.tie(0); typedef pair<int, int> pii; typedef long long LL; const double PI = acos(-1.0); const int N = 1010; const double eps = 1e-5; double a[N], b[N], d[N]; int main(void) { int n, k, i; while (~scanf("%d%d", &n, &k) && (n | k)) { for (i = 0; i < n; ++i) scanf("%lf", a + i); for (i = 0; i < n; ++i) scanf("%lf", b + i); double L = 0, R = 1e9 + 7, ans = 0; int res = n - k; while (fabs(R - L) >= eps) { double mid = (L + R) / 2.0; for (i = 0; i < n; ++i) d[i] = a[i] - mid * b[i]; sort(d, d + n, greater<double>()); double temp = 0; for (i = 0; i < res; ++i) temp += d[i]; if (temp > 0) { L = mid; ans = mid; } else R = mid; } printf("%.0f ", 100.0 * ans); } return 0; }